Engineering Methodology - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1.    Who made the following classic statement.
"When you can measure what you are speaking about and express it in numbers, you know something about it, and when you can't express it in numbers, your knowledge, is of a meagre and unsatisfactory kind. It may be the beginning of knowledge, but you have scarcely in your thought advanced to the stage of science."
(a)     Arnold Young
(b)     Taylorson
(c)     Johanson   
(d)     Lord Kelvin
(e)     Taylor.

2.    The ease with which observations can be made accurately is referred to as
(a)     readability     
(b)     sensitivity
(c)     accuracy   
(d)     precision
(e)     repeatability.

3.    Accuracy of measuring equipment is
(a)    the closeness with which a measure-ment can be read directly from a measuring instrument.
(b)    a measure of how close the reading is to the true size.
(c)    the difference between measured value and actual value
(d)    the smallest change in measurand that can be measured
(e)    the capability to indicate the same reading again and again for a given measurand.

4.    Which of the following error's are generally distributed in accordance "with the Gaussian distribution
(a)    controllable errors
(b)    calibration errors
(c)    avoidable errors
(d)    random errors
(e)    error due to ambient conditions.

6.    Tolerances are specified
(a)    to obtain desired fits
(b)    because it is not possible to manufac¬ture a size exactly
(c)    to obtain high accuracy
(d)    to have proper allowance
(e)    to have proper inspection.

7.    Which of the following is the most important characteristic of a measuring instrument in general
(a)     precision   
(b)     accuracy
(c)     repeatability   
(d)     sensitivity
(e)     readability.

8.    Sensitivity and range of measuring instrument have
(a)    direct relationship
(b)    linear relationship
(c)    inverse relationship
(d)    unpredictable relationship
(e)    no relationship.

9.    Systematic errors are
(a)    randomly distributed
(b)    regularly repetitive in nature
(c)    distributed on both + ve and - ve sides of mean value
(d)     unknown errors
(e)     of unpredictable nature.

10.    Precision of measuring equipment is
(a)     the closeness with which a measure¬ment can be read directly from a measuring instrument
(b)     a measure of how close the reading is to the true size
(c)    the difference between measured value and actual value
(d)    the smallest change in measurand that can be measured
(e)    the capability to indicate the same reading again and again for a given measurand.

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Process Instrumentation and Control - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1.    A device for determining die value or magnitude of a quantity or variable :
(a)     sensor   
(b)     transducer
(c)     gauge   
(d)     instrument
(e)     indicator.

Ans: d

2.    Determining moisture in steam by measuring the temperature in a throttling calorimeter is an example of :
(a)    direct measurement
(b)    indirect measurement
(c)    measurement by comparison
(d)    measurement by calibration
(e)    automatic measurement.

Ans: b

3.    The closeness with which the reading of an instrument approaches the true value of the variable being measured is called :
(a)     accuracy   
(b)     precision
(c)     sensitivity      
(d)     resolution
(e)     discrimination.

Ans: a

4.    Errors due to assignable causes are called :
(a)     static errors    
(b)     systematic errors
(c)    calibration errors
(d)    random errors
(e)    known errors.

Ans: b

5.    Pick up the appropriate word for A pointer moving over a scale :
(a)     instrument     
(b)     indicator
(c)     transducer      
(d)     gauge
(e)     recorder.

Ans: b

6.    Pick up the appropriate word for A reading obtained from the motion of a pointer on a scale :
(a)     analog   
(b)     digital
(c)     display   
(d)     indicator
(e)     instrument.
Ans: a

7.    Pick up the appropriate word for The reading displayed as a number, a series of holes on a punched card, or a sequence of pulses on magnetic tape :
(a)     pulse train      
(b)     digital
(c)     analog   
(d)     numeral
(e)     recording.
Ans: b

8.    For studying detailed variations with time, one uses :
(a)     indicator   
(b)     digital indicator
(c)     recorder   
(d)     integrator
(e)     analog indicator.
Ans: c

9.    The condition of how much successive readings differ from one another for a fixed value of the variable is called :
(a)     accuracy   
(b)     error
(c)     sensitivity      
(d)     resolution
(e)     precision.
Ans: e

10.    The ratio of output signal or response of the instrument'" to a change in input or measured variable is called :
(a)     sensitivity
(b)     precision
(c)     resolution
(d)     threshold
(e)     accuracy.
Ans: a

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Production Management and Industrial Engineering - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1. A graphical device used to determine the break-even point and profit potential under varying conditions of output and costs, is known as
(a)     Gnatt chart
(b)     flow chart
(c)    break-even chart
(d)    PERT chart  
(e)    Taylor chart.
Ans: c

2. Break-even analysis consists of
(a)    fixed cost
(b)    variable cost
(c)    fixed and variable costs
(d)    operation costs
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

3. Break-even analysis shows profit when
(a)    sales revenue > total cost
(b)    sales revenue = total cost
(c)    sales revenue < total cost
(d)    variable cost < fixed cost
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

4. In braek-even analysis, total cost consists of
(a)    fixed cost
(b)    variable cost
(c)    fixed cost + variable cost
(d)    fixed cost + variable cost + over-heads
(e)    fixed cost + sales revenue.
Ans: a

5. The break-even point represents
(a)    the most economical level of operation of any industry
(b)    the time when unit can run without i loss and profit
(c)    time when industry will undergo loss
(d)    the time when company can make maximum profits
(e)    time for overhauling a plant.
Ans: c

9. In the cost structure of a product, the sell¬ing price is determined by the factors such as1
(a)     sales turn over
(b)     lowest competitive price
(c)    various elements of the cost
(d)    buyers' capability to pay
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

10.    Work study is concerned with
(a)     improving present method and finding standard time
(b)    motivation of workers
(c)    improving production capability
(d)    improving  production planning  and control
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: a

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Production Technology - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1.    Work study is concerned with
(a)     improving present method and finding standard time
(b)    motivation of workers
(c)    improving production capability
(d)    improving  production planning  and control
(e)    all of the above.

Ans: a

2.    Basic tool in work study is
(a)    graph paper
(b)    process chart
(c)    planning chart
(d)    stop watch
(e)    analytical mind.

Ans: d

3.    What does symbol 'O' imply in work study
(a)     operation       
(b)     inspection
(c)    transport
(d)    delay/temporary storage
(e)    none of the above.

Ans: a

4.    What does symbol 'D' imply in work study
(a)     inspection
(b)     transport
(c)    delay/temporary storage
(d)    permanent storage
(e)    none of the above.

Ans: c

5.    What hoes symbol' V' imply in work study
(a)    operation
(b)    inspection
(c)    delay/ temporary Storage
(d)    permanent storage
(e)    none of the above.   

Ans: d

6.    Material handling in automobile industry is done by
(a)    overhead crane
(b)    trolley   
(c)     belt conveyor
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.

 Ans: a

7.    String diagram is used when
(a)    team of workers is working at a place
(b)    material handling is to be done
(c)    idle time is to be reduced
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

8.    Work study is most useful
(a)    where production  activities  are  involved
(b)    in judging the rating of machines
(c)    in improving industrial relations
(d)    in judging the output of a man and improving it
(e)    where men are biggest contributor to success of a project.
Ans: a

9.    Micromotion study is
(a)    enlarged view of motion study
(b)    analysis of one stage of motion study
(c)    minute and detailed motion study
(d)    subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
(e)    motion study of small components upto microseconds.
Ans: d

10.    In micromotion study, therblig is described by
(a)     a symbol       
(b)     an event
(c)     an activity      
(d)     micro motions
(e)     standard symbol and colour.
Ans: e

11.    The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
(a)    policy allowance
(b)    interference allowance
(c)    process allowance
(d)    learning allowance
(e)    unforeseen allowance.
Ans: a

12.    Micromotion study involves following number of fundamental hand motions
(a)     8   
(b)     12
(c)     16   
(d)     20
(e)     24
Ans: c

13.    The standard time for a job is
(a)    total work content
(b)    basic time + relaxation time
(c)    total work content + basic time
(d)    total work content + delay contingency allowance
(e)    total work content + relaxation time.
Ans: d

14.    Work study is done with the help of
(a) process chart 
(b) material handling
(c) stop watch     
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

15.    Scheduling gives information about
(a)    when work should start and how much work should be completed during a certain period
(b)    when work should complete
(c)    that how idle time can be minimised
(d)    prcper utilisation of machines
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

16.    Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on
(a)    operator's activity
(b)    flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
(c)    minimising the delays
(d)    making efficient despatching
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

17.    Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to
(a)    determine overhead expenses
(b)    provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
(c)    determine standard costs
(d)    determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of machines
(e)    compare alternative methods.
Ans: a

18.    Job evaluation is the method-of determining the
(a)    relative worth of jobs
(b)    skills required by a worker
(c)    contribution of a worker
(d)    contribution of a job
(e)    effectiveness of various alternatives.
Ans: a

19.    Micro motion study is
(a)    analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera with a timing device in the field of view
(b)    motion study* observed on enhanced time intervals
(c)    motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
(d)    study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
(e)     scientific, analytical procedure for determining optimum work method.
Ans: a

20.    Per cent idle time for men or machines is found by
(a)    work sampling
(b)    time study
(c)    method study
(d)    work study
(e)    ABC analysis.
Ans: a

21.    TMU in method time measurement stands for
(a)     time motion unit
(b)     time measurement unit
(c)    time movement unit
(d)    technique measurement unit
(e)    time method unit.
Ans: b

22.    Time study is
(a)    the appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving human effort
(b)    machine setting time
(c)    time taken by workers to do a job
(d)    method of fixing time for workers
(e)    method of determining the personnel Requirement.
 Ans: a

23.    Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of
(a)    detailed calculations
(b)    convenience
(c)    table of random numbers
(d)    past experience
(e)    fixed percentage of daily production.
Ans: c

24.    One  time  measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement system equals
(a) 0.0001 minute
(b) 0.0006 minute
(c) 0.006 minute 
(d) 0.001 minute
(e) 0.06 minute.
Ans: b

25.    Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten thousandths of
(a) second   
(b) minute
(c) hour   
(d) day
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

26.    Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for
(a)    improving a work method
(b)    improvising a work method
(c)    designing a work method
(d)     providing a schematic framework
(e)     reducing inventory costs.
Ans: e

27.    Gnatt chart provides information about the
(a)    material handling
(b)    proper utilization of manpower
(c)    production schedule
(d)    efficient working of machine
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: c

28.    ABC analysis deals with
(a)    analysis of process chart
(b)    flow of material
(c)    ordering schedule of job
(d)    controlling inventory costs money
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: d

29.    Process layout is employed for
(a)     batch production   
(b)    continuous type of product
(c)    effective utilization of machines
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

30.    For a product layout the material handling equipment must
(a)    have full flexibility
(b)    employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
(c)    be a general purpose type
(d)    be designed as special purpose for a particular application
(e)    arranging shops according to specialization of duties.
Ans: d

31.    Travel charts provide
(a)    an idea of the flow of materials at various stages
(b)    a compact estimate of the handling which must be done between various work sections
(c)    the information for changes required in rearranging material handling equipment
(d)    an approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a particular station
(g)     solution to handling techniques to achieve most optimum^ results.
Ans: b

32.    Product layout is employed for
(a)    batch production
(b)    continuous production1
(c)    effective utilisation of machine
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

33.    The most important objective behind plant layout is
(a)     overall simplification, safety of integration
(b)    economy in space
(c)    maximum travel time in plant
(d)    to provide conveniently located shops
(e)    to avoid any bottlenecks.
Ans: a

34.    The process layout is best suited where
(a)    specialization exists
(b)    machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
(c)    few number of non-standardised units are to be produced
(d)    mass production is envisaged
(e)    bought out items are more.
Ans: c

35.    A low unit cost can be obtained by following
(a)     product layout
(b)     functional layout
(c)    automatic material handling equipment
(d)    specialisation of operation
(e)    minimum travel time plan and compact layout.
Ans: a

36.    Military organisation is known as
(a)    line organisation
(b)    line and staff organisation
(c)    functional organisation
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

37.    The main disadvantage of line organisation is
(a)    top level executives have to do excessive work
(b)    structure is rigid
(c)    communication delays occur
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

38.    The main advantage of line organisation is its
(a)    effective command and control
(b)    defined responsibilities at all levels
(c)    rigid discipline in the organisation
(d)    ability of quick decision at all levels
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

39.    Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
(a)    line organisation
(b)    line and staff organisation
(c)    functional organisation
(d)    effective organisation
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

40.    The salient feature of functional organization is
(a)    strict adherence to specification
(b)    separation of planning and design part
(c)    each individual maintains functional efficiency
(d)    work  is properly planned and distributed
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

41.    The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering Constructions is
(a)     line organisation
(b)    line and staff organisation
(c)    functional organisation
(d)    effective organisation
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

42.    Templates are used for
(a)    a planning layout
(b)    flow of material
(c)    advancing a programmer in automatic machines
(d)    copying complicated profiles
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

43.    In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
(a) conveyors      
(b) cranes and hoists
(c) trucks   
(d) locos
(e) none of jhe above.
Ans: d

44.    Routing prescribes the
(a)    flow oftnaterial in the plant
(b)    proper utilization of man power
(c)    proper utilization of machines
(d)    inspection of final product
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

45.    Queuing theory deals with problems of
(a)    material handling
(b)    reducing the waiting time or idle Jajme
(c)    better utilization of man services
(d)    effective use of machines
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

46.    Standard time is defined as
(a)    normal time + allowances
(b)    normal time + idle time + allowances
(c)    normal time + idle time
(d)    only normal time for an operation
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

47.    Father of industrial engineering is
(a) Jeck Gilberth
(b) Gnatt
(c) Taylor   
(d) Newton
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

48.    The grouping of activities into organizational units is called
(a)    corporate plans
(b)    higher level management
(c)    functional authority
(d)    departmentalization
(e)    company policy.
Ans: d

49.    Which of the following organization is preferred in automobile industry
(a)     functional organization
(b)    line organization
(c)    staff organization
(d)    line and staff organizations
(e)    scalar organization.
Ans: d

50.    Which of the following organizations is best suited for steel plants
(a)    functional organization
(b)    line organization
(c)    staff organization
(d)    line, staff and functional organizations
(e)    scalar organization.
Ans: d

51.    The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the following method in the evaluation of the material issued from the store
(a)    inflated system
(b)    primary cost method
(c)    current value method
(d)    fixed price method
(e)    variable price method.
Ans: a

52.    Which of the following is independent of sales forecast
(a)    productivity
(b)    inventory control
(c)    production planning
(d)    production control
(e)    capital budgeting.
Ans: a

53.    Gnatt charts are used for
(a)    forecasting sales
(b)    production schedule
(c)    scheduling and routing
(d)    linear programming
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

54.    Inventory management consists of
(a)    effective running of stores
(b)    state of merchandise methods of stroing and maintenance etc.
(c)    stock control system
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

55.    Gnatt charts provide information about
(a)    break even point analysis
(b)    production schedule
(c)    material handling layout
(d)    determining selling price
(e)    value analysis.
Ans: b

56.    Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at
(a)     achieving optimization
(b)    ensuring against market fluctuations
(c)    acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory
(d)     discounts allowed in bulk purchase
(e)     regulate supply and demand.
Ans: c

57.    In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the
(a)    optimum lot size
(b)    highest level of inventory
(c)    lot corresponding to break-even point
(d)    capability of a plant to produce
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

58.    Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of
(a)    quality   
(b)     statistics
(c)     probability     
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: c

59.    The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is
(a)     management
(b)    labour court
(c)    high court/supreme court
(d)    board of directors
(e)    president.
Ans: c

60.    Under the Apprenticeship Act
(a)    all industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
(b)    industries have to train apprentices ac-cording to their requirement
(c)    all industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit apprentices
(d)    only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprentices
(e)    all industries other than small scale industries have to train apprentices.
Ans: d

61.    Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to
(a)    all industries
(b)    all process industries and thermal power plants
(c)    only major industries
(d)    only key industries
(e)    all industries employing more than 100 workers.
Ans: e

62.    Acceptance sampling is widely used in
(a)    bacth production
(b)    job production
(c)    mass production
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

63.    The technique of value analysis can be applied to
(a)    complicated items only
(b)    simple items only
(c)    crash-programme items only
(d)    cost consciousness items only
(e)    any item.
Ans: e

64.    The term 'value' in value engineering refers to
(a)    total cost of the product
(b)    selling price of the product
(c)    utility of the product
(d)    manufactured cost of the product
(e)    depreciation value.
Ans: c

65.    Value engineering aims at finding out the
(a)    depreciation value of a product
(b)    resale value of a product
(c)    major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least cost without change in quality
(d)    break even point when machine re-quires change
(e)    selling price of an item.
Ans: c

66.    In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it reaches its
(a)    minimum value
(b)    maximum value
(c)    average value
(d)    alarming value
(e)    original value.
Ans: a

67.    According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced by new one when
(a)    CAM < DAM
(b)    CAM > DAM
(c)    CAM = DAM
(d)    there is no such criterion
(e)    none of the above.
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's Adverse minimum)
Ans: a

68.    Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of
(a)    a job
(b)    an individual employee
(c)    a particular division in workshop
(d)     machine
(e)     overall quality.
Ans: b

69.    Material handling and plant location is analyzed by
(a)     Gnatt chart    
(b)     bin chart
(c)     Emerson chart
(d)    travel chart    
(e)     activity chart.
Ans: d

70.    Works cost implies
(a)     primary cost  
(b)     factory cost
(c)     factory expenses
(d)     primary cost + factory expenses
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

71.    Motion study involves analysis of
(a)    actions of operator
(b)    layout of work place
(c)    tooling and equipment
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

72.    Standard time as compared to normal time is
(a)     greater   
(b)     smaller
(c)    equal
(d)    there is no such correlation
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

73.    Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work sampling
(a)    permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
(b)    simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single observer
(c)    calculations are easier, method is economical and less time consuming
(d)     no time measuring devices are generally needed
(e)     as operators are not watched for long periods, chances of obtaining misleading results are less.
Ans: a

74.    In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
(a)    process layout
(b)    product layout
(c)    fixed position layout
(d)    plant layout
(e)    functional layout.
Ans: b

75.    Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production
(a)    process layout
(b)    product layout
(c)    fixed position layout
(d)     plant layout
(e)     functional layout.
Ans: b

76.    Which of the following layouts is suited to job production
(a)    process layout
(b)    product layout
(c)    fixed position layout
(d)    plant layout
(e)    functional layout.
Ans: a

77.    The employees provident fund act is applicable to
(a)    all industries
(b)    all industries other than small and medium industries
(c)    volunteers
(d)    the industries notified by Government
(e)    all major industries.
Ans: d

78.    The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards employees provident fund is
(a)    credited into reserves of company
(b)    deposited in nationalized bank
(c)    deposited in post office
(d)    deposited in the account of worker with employer or Reserve Bank of India
(e)    deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund Commissioner.
Ans: e

79.    The deductions for, employees provident fund start
(a)    immediately on joining the service
(b)    after 60 days of joining the service
(c)    after 100 days of joining the service
(d)    after 240 days of joining the service
(e)    after one year of joining the service.
Ans: d

80.    Father of time study was
(a) F.W. Taylor   
(b) H.L. Gantt
(c) F.B. Gilberfh 
(d) R.M. Barnes
(e) H.B. Maynord.
Ans: a

81.    Tick the odd man out
(a) Taylor   
(b) Drucker
(c) McGregor      
(d) Galileo
(e) Parkinson.
Ans: d

82.    Current assets include
(a)    manufacturing plant
(b)    manufacturing plant and equipment
(c)    inventories
(d)    common stock held by the firm
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: a

83.    The objective of time study is to determine the time required to complete a job by
(a) fast worker    
(b) average worker
(c) slow worker  
(d) new entrant
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b

84.    Job enrichment technique is applied to
(a)    reduce labour monotony
(b)    overcome boring and demotivating work
(c)    make people happy
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

85.    For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
(a)    process layout
(b)    product layout
(c)    fixed position layout
(d)    plant layout
(e)    functional layout.
Ans: c

86.    In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established
(a)    by time study
(b)    from previous production records
(c)    from one's judgement
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

87.    Routing is essential in the following type of industry
(a)    assembly industry
(b)    process industry
(c)    job order industry
(d)    mass production industry
(e)    steel industry.
Ans: a

88.    An optimum project schedule implies
(a)    optimum utilization of men, machines and materials
(b)    lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
(c)    timely execution of project
(d)    to produce best results under given constraints
(e)    realistic  execution  time,  minimum cost and maximum profits.
Ans: b

89.    Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method are concerned with
(ay     break-even analysis
(b)     value analysis
(c)     linear programming
(d)    queuing theory
(e)    material handling.
Ans: c

90.    Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
(a)    Scanlon Plan
(b)    Rowan Plan
(c)    Bedaux Plan
(d)    Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(e)    Halsey Premium Plan.
Ans: a

91.    In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(a)    past good workers
(b)    past poor workers
(c)    past average workers
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

92.    In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is
(a)    paid as per efficiency
(b)    ensured of minimum wages
(c)    not paid any bonus till his efficiency
(d)    never a loser
(e)    induced to do more work.
Ans: b

93.    'Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
(a)    purchase value
(b)    saleable value
(c)    depreciated value
(d)     present worth
(e)     function/cost.
 Ans: e

94.    Break-even analysis can be used for
(a)    short run analysis
(b)    long run analysis
(c)    average of above two run analysis
(d)    there is no such criterion
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

95.    CPM has following time estimate
(a)    one time estimate
(b)    two time estimate
(c)    three time estimate
(d)    four time estimate
(e)    nil time estimate.
Ans: a

96.    PERT has following time estimate
(a)    one time estimate
(b)    two time estimate
(c)    three time estimate
(d)    four time estimate
(e)    nil time estimate.
Ans: c

97.    In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of the profit which an .employee receives in addition to the guaranteed basic pay/wages, is based on :
(a)    a standard rating system
(b)    a merit rating system
(c)    a job evaluation system
(d)    his individual performance
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: b

98.    Which of the following incentive pleasures a part of the swing to the worker and rest to the employer
(a)    Emerson efficiency plan
(b)    Taylor plan
(c)    Halsey premium plan
(e)    Gilberth plan.
Ans: c

99.    Which of the following is not wage incentive plan
(a)    differential piece rate system
(b)    Rowan plan   
(c)     Emerson plan
(d)     Taylor plan   
(e)     Halsey plan.
Ans: d

100.    Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a premium on time saved by workers
(a) Halsey plan  
(b) Rowan plan
(c) Haynes plan  
(d) Emerson's plan
(e) Taylor's plan.
Ans: c

101.    The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is paid to the worker for every hour he saves from the established time required. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a)    Rowan Plan
(b)    Bedaux Plan
(c)    Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(d)    Halsey Premium plan
(e)    Day work plan.
Ans: d

102.    One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that
(a)    a differential piece rate system should exist
(b)    minimum wages should be guaranteed
(c)    provide incentive to group efficiency performance
(d)    all standards should be based on optimum standards of production
(e)    all standards should be based on time studies.
Ans: e

103.    In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily wage and no bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches
(a) 50%   
(b) 661%
(c) 75%   
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: b

104.    According to Rowan plan, if H = hourly rate, A = actual time and S = standard time, then wages will be
(a)    HA
(b)    HA + (S~A) HA
(c)    HA + ^^-H
(d)    HA + ^^-H
(e)    HA + ^^-HA.
Ans: b

105.    If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan plan, his maximum daily earnings can be
(a) 2 HA   
(b) 1.33 HA
(c) 1.5 HA   
(d) 1.15 HA
(e) 2.5 HA.
Ans: a

106.    In A-B-C control policy, maximum attention is given to
(a)    those items which consume money
(b)    those items which are not readily available
(c)    those items which are in more demand
(d)    those items which consume more money
(e)    proper quality  assurance program-mes.
Ans: d

107.    Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan ?
(a)    Halsey Premium Plan
(b)    Bedaux Plan
(c)    Lincoln Plan
(d)    Rowan Plan
(e)    Taylor Plan.
Ans: c

108.    The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited resources in an optimum manner is known as
(a)    operation research
(b)    linear programming
(c)    network analysis
(d)    queuing theory
(e)    break-even analysis.
Ans: b

109.    In order that linear programming techniques provide valid results
(a)    relations between factors must be linear (positive)
(b)    relations between factors must be linear (negative)
(c)    (a) or (b)
(d)    only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

110.    The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully to industries like
(a)    iron and steel
(b)    food processing
(c)    oil and chemical
(d)    banking
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

111. The simplex method is the basic method for
(a) value analysis
(b) operation research
(c)    linear programming
(d)    model analysis
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

112.    The two-bin system is concerned with
(a)    ordering procedure
(b)    forecasting sales
(c)    production planning
(d)     despatching and expediting
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: a

113.    The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is paid to the worker based on the exact % of time
saved. This type of incentive plan is known as
(a)    Dry work Plan
(b)    Halsey Premium Plan
(c)    Taylor Plan
(d)    Bedaux Plan
(e)    Rowan Plan.
Ans: e

114. Replacement studies are made on the fol-lowing basis:
(a)    annual cost method
(b)    rate of return method
(c)    total life average method
(d)    present worth method
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: e

115.    String diagram is used
(a)    for checking the relative values of various layouts
(b)    when a group of workers are working at a place
(c)    where processes require the operator to be moved from one place to another
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

116.    Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the interest be charged on the cost of machine asset every year on the book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant
(a)    sinking fund method
(b)    straight line method
(c)    A-B-C charging method
(d)    annuity charging method
(e)    diminishing balance method.
Ans: d

117.    Bin card is used in
(a)    administrative wing
(b)    workshop       
(c)     foundry shop
(d)     stores   
(e)     assembly shop.
Ans: d

118.    Slack represents the difference between the
(a)    latest allowable time and the normal expected time
(b)    latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
(c)    proposed allowable time and the earliest expected time
(d)    normal allowable time and the latest expected time
(e)    project initiation tune and actual starting time.
Ans: b

119.    PERT and CPM are
(a)    techniques to determine project status
(b)    decision making techniques
(c)    charts which increase aesthetic appearance of rooms
(d)    aids to determine cost implications of project
(e)    aids to the decision maker.
Ans: e

120.    A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former case
(a)    activities and events are clearly shown
(b)    early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked
(c)    activity times are clear
(d)    critical path can be easily determined
(e)    inter-relationship among activities is clearly shown.
Ans: e

121.    CPM is the
(a)    time oriented technique
(b)    event oriented technique
(c)    activity oriented technique
(d)    target oriented technique
(e)    work oriented technique.
Ans: c

122.    PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include
(a)    MTM (method time measurement)
(b)    WFS (work factor systems)
(c)    BNTS (basic motion time study)
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above
Ans: d

123.    Work study comprises following main techniques
(a)    method study and work measurement
(b)    method study and time study
(c)    time study and work measurement
(d)    method study and job evaluation
(e)    value analysis and work measurement.
Ans: a

124. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with others
(a)    organization performance x motivation = profits
(b)    knowledge x skill = ability
(c)    ability x motivation = performance
(d)    attitude x situation = motivation
(e)     performance x resources
Ans: a

125. PERT is the
(a)    time oriented technique
(b)    event oriented technique
(c)     activity oriented technique
(d)    target oriented technique
(e)    work oriented technique.
Ans: b

126.    The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
(a)    PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
(b)    critical path is determined in PERT only
(c)    costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
(d)    guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
(e)    PERT is used in workshops and CPM in plants.
Ans: d

127.    PERT stands for    k (fit) project evaluation and review technique
(b)    project examination and review technique 
(c)    project evaluation and reporting technique
(d)    process execution and reporting technology
(e)    project execution and results technique.
Ans: a

128.    Queing theory is used for
(a)    inventory problems
(b)    traffic congestion studies
(c)    job-shop scheduling
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

129.    In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be studied and analyzed mathematically if
(a)    complete details'of items in, waiting line are known
(b)    arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a waiting line model
(c)    all variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
(d)    the laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which the arriving units are taken into source are known
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: d

130.    Queing theory is associated with
(a) sales   
(b) inspection time
(c) waiting time  
(d) production time
(e) inventory.
Ans: c

131.    The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a queue should be that
(a)    the average service rate HHess than the average arrival rate
(b)    output rate is linearly proportional to input
(c)    output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

132.    Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in queuing problems
(a)    that can't be analyzed mathematically
(b)    involving multistage queuing
(c)    to verify mathematical results
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

133.    In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it reaches its
(a)    minimum value
(b)    maximum value
(c)    average value
(d)    middle value
(e)    alarming value.
Ans: a

134.    A milestone chart
(a) shows the interdependences of various jobs
(b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(c) points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

135.    Bar charts are suitable for
(a) minor works  
(b) major works
(c) large projects
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

136.    The first method invented for planning projects was
(a)    bar chart method
(b)    milestone chart
(c)    critical path method (CPM)
(d)    programmer evaluation and review technique (PERT)
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

137.    Pick up the correct statement from the following
(a)    programmer evaluation and review technique is event oriented
(b)    programmer evaluation and review technique is not event oriented
(c) critical path method is event oriented
(d)    critical.path method is not activity oriented   
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: e

138.    Pick up the correct statement from the following
(a)    critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method
(b)    critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily problems
(c)    critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar chart
(d)    critical path method was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kelley of Remington U.S.A in 1957
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

139.    Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(a)    a project is divided into various activities
(b)    required time for each activity is established
(c)    sequence of various activities is made according to their importance
(d)    network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

140.    The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by following time of the critical activity meeting at the final iodide
(a) early finish    
(b) early start
(c) late start   
(d) late finish
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

141. The disadvantage of product layout is
(a)    high initial investment for the specialized facilities
(b)    skilled labour to operate machines
(c)    production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory
(d)    high cost of inspection
(e)    costly and complex production control.
Ans: a

142. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in
(a)    job production
(b)    automatic production
(c)    continuous production
(d)    intermittent production
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

143.    Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance
(a)    the flow of material in the plant
(b)    the methods of proper utilization of manpower
(c)    the methods of proper utilization of machines
(d)    the layout of factory facilities
(e)    normal route of workers through the plant.
Ans: c

144.    The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
(a) dummy   
(b) event
(c) activity   
(d) contract
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

145.    Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
(a)    an activity of the project is denoted by an harrow on the net work
(b)    the tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
(c)    the head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity

(d)    the arrows are drawn (to scale from; left to right)
(e)    each activity consumes a given time.-
Ans: d

146.    The artificial activity; which indicates that an activity following it cannot be started unless, the preceding activity is complete, is known as
(a) event   
(b) free float
(c) artificial   
(d) constraint
(e) dummy.
Ans: e

147.    A dummy activity
(a)    is artificially introduced
(b)    is represented by a dotted line
(c)    does not require any time
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

148.    If E is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest start and finish times, LS and LF are latest start and finish times, then the following relation holds good
(a) EF=ES+D
(b) LS=LF-D
(c) LF = LS + D
(d) D = EF-ES
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

149.    The difference between the time available to do the job and the time required to do the job, is known as
(a) event   
(b) float
(c) duration   
(d) constraint
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

150.    The probability distribution of activity times in PERT follows following distribution
(a) normal   
(b) binomial
(c) beta   
(d) exponential
(e) Gaussian.
Ans: c

151.    The probability distribution of project completion in PERT follows following distribution
(a) normal   
(b) binominal
(c) beta   
(d) exponential
(e) Gaussian.
Ans: e

152.    If TL is the largest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack (s) is equal to
(a)    latest start time - earliest start time
(b)    latest finish time - earliest finish time (EFT)
(c)    TLEFT
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

153.    The critical activity has
(a) maximum float
(p) minimum float
(c) zero float,
(d) average float
(e) none of these.
 Ans: c

154.    The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of succeeding activities, is Known as
(a) duration   
(b) total float
(c) free float   
(d) interfering float
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

155.    The critical path of a network represents
(a)    the minimum time required for completion of project
(b)    the maximum time required for completion of project
(c)    maximum cost required for completion of project
(d)    minimum cost required for completion of project
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

156.    Pick up the correct statement from the following
(a)    the float may be positive, zero or negative
(b)    if the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the completion of project in not delayed
(c)    if the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the completion of project
(d)    if the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the whole project
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

157.    Critical path moves along the activities having total float of
(a) positive value
(b) negative value
(c) zero value     
(d) same value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

158.    Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
(a)    to concentrate his attention on critical activities
(b)    to divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activities
(c)    to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole project
(d)     all of the above
(e)     none of the above.
Ans: d

159.    Pick up the correct statement about relationship between various floats
(a)    free float = total float
(b)    independent float = total float
(c)    independent float > free float
(d)    free float > total float
(e)    independent float < free float.
Ans: e

160.    The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an activity is known as
(a) normal time   
(b) slow time
(c) crash time      
(d) standard time
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

161.    The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among the various jobs of any project is known as
(a)    event flow scheduling technique
(b)    critical ratio scheduling
(c)    slotting technique for scheduling
(d)    short interval scheduling
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

162.    Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. A critical ratio scheduling
(a)    establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis
(b)    determines the status of each activity
(c)    adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
(d)    is a dynamic system
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: e

163.    PERT is
(a)     an analytic tool in concept
(b)     limit up of event oriented diagrams
(c)    used for research and development projects
(d)    based on three time estimates for activities linking up two events
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

164.    CPMis
(a)    synthesizing in concepts
(b)    is built of activities oriented program-mes
(c)    is, based on one time estimate
(d)    is used for repetitive works
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

165.    A CPM family includes
(a)    CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
(b)    CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
(c)    MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure)
(d)    CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

166.    PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for following applications
(a)    once through project
(b)    maintenance jobs
(c)    research and development
(d)    all non-technical jobs
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

167.    PERT analysis is based on
(a)    optimistic time
(b)    pessimistic time
(c)    most likely time
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

168.    Discrepancies of bar chart techniques are
(a)    consequential effects of lack in one activity on omer
(b)    consequential effects of lack in one activity on the finish date
(c)     free time available  for an activity can't be predicted
(d)    effective monitoring/controlling can't be done
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

169.    O on a PERT/CPM chart represents
(a)    an ordinary event
(b)    a significant event representing some mile-stone
(c)    an event to be transferred to other network chart
(d)    dangling event
(e)    dummy event.
Ans: a

170.    Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM chart means, it
(a)     consumes time, but no resources
(b)    consumes resources but no time
(c)    consumes neither time nor resources
(d)    is a dangling event
(e)    consumes both resources and time.
Ans: c

171.    Criticalpath on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by joining the events having
(a)    maximum slack
(b)    minimum slack
(c)    average slack
(d)    no slack
(e)    judgement and experience.
Ans: b

172.    Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT/CPM chart
(a)    increases continuously
(b)    decreases continuously
(c)    remains constant
(d)    may increase or decrease depending on various factors
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: c

173.    The assumption in PERT is
(a)    a project will always be behind schedule, if left uncorrected
(b)    cost of project will always be more than the estimated cost, if no timely corrections are taken
(c)    a project can be subdivided into a set of predictable, independent activities
(d)    activities are fixed and can't be changed    ,
(e)    commissioning time can be changed, if activities are behind schedule.
Ans: c

174.    Activity s,lack or float of any event on a PERT/CPM chart is represented by
(a)    latest start time of succeeding event -earliest finish time of preceding event activity time
(b)    latest start time of the event - earliest start time of the event
(c)    latest finish time of event - earliest finish time of the event
(d)    anyone of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

175.    The important iule in making a PERT is
(a)    an event can't be accomplished until activities leading to it are completed
(b)    no activity from any event can be started from preceding event till it is completed
(c)    length of arrow has nothing to do with time
(d)    every activity must be completed before end point is reached
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: e

176.    An event is indicated on the network by
(a)    a straight line
(b)    a number enclosed in a circle or a square
(c)    a straight line with circles at the ends
(d)     a dotted line  
(e)     an arrow.
Ans: b

177.    In a PERT chart
(a)    all activities should be numbered
(b)    only important activities should be numbered
(c)    only critical activities are numbered
(d)    only selected activities are numbered
(e)    no activity is numbered.
Ans: a

178.    Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is
(a)    ahead of schedule
(b)    beyond schedule
(c)    as per schedule
(d)    on critical path
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

179.    Pessimistic time is
(a)    the maximum time which an activity might require
(b)    the average time required for a job
(c)    the most probable time considering all conditions
(d)    the minimum time in which an ac¬tivity can possibly be accomplished
(e)    the earliest finish.
Ans: a

180. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events having
(a) +ve slack       
(b) -ve slack
(c) zero slack      
(d) dummy activities
(e) critical activities.
Ans: c

Theory of Machines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1.    Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces arising from the combined effect of the mass and the motion of the parts
(a)    theory of machines
(b)    applied mechanics
(c)    mechanisms   
(d)     kinetics
(e)     kinematics.

Ans: d

2.    Which of the following disciplines provides study of relative motion between the parts of a machine
(a)    theory of machines
(b)    applied mechanics
(c)    mechanisms   
(d)     kinetics
(e)    kinematics.

Ans: e

3.    Which of the following disciplines provides study of the relative motion between the parts of a machine and the forces acting on the parts
(a)    theory of machines
(b)    applied mechanics
(c)    mechanisms
(d)    kinetics
(e)    kinematics.

Ans: a

4.    The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another element is known as
(a)     turning pair   
(b)     rolling pair
(c)     sliding pair    
(d)     spherical pair
(e)     lower pair,

Ans: a

5.    Which of the following is a lower pair
(a)    ball and socket   

(b)    piston and cylinder
(c)    cam and follower
(d)    (a) and (b) above
(e)    belt drive.

Ans: d

6.    If two moving elements have surface contact in motion, such pair is known as
(a)     sliding pair    
(b)     rolling pair
(c)     surface pair   
(d)     lower pair
(e)     higher pair.

Ans: e

7.    The example of lower pair is
(a)    shaft revolving in a bearing
(b)    straight line motion mechanisms
(c)    automobile steering gear
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

8.    Pulley in a belt drive acts as
(a)    cylindrical pair
(b)    turning pair
(c)    rolling pair
(d)    sliding pair
(e)    surface pair.
Ans: c

9.    The example of rolling pair is
(a)    bolt and nut
(b)    lead screw of a lathe
(c)    ball and socket joint
(d)    ball bearing and roller bearing
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: d

10.    Any point on a link connecting double slider crank chain will trace a
(a)     straight line    
(b)     circle
(c)     ellipse   
(d)     parabola
(e)     hyperbola.
Ans: c

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Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1.    Strain is defined as the ratio of
(a)    change in volume to original volume
(b)    change in length to original length
(c)    change   in   cross-sectional area to original cross-sectional area
(d)    any one of the above
(e)    none of the above.

Ans: d

2.    Hooke's law holds good upto
(a)    yield point
(b)    limit of proportionality
(c)    breaking point
(d)    elastic limit
(e)    plastic limit.

Ans: b

3.    Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of
(a)    volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(b)    lateral stress and lateral strain
(c)    longitudinal   stress   and  longitudinal strain
(d)    shear stress to shear strain
(e)    longitudinal stress and lateral strain.

Ans: c

4.    The unit of Young's modulus is
(a)      mm/mm   
(b)      kg/cm
(c)      kg   
(d)      kg/cm2
(e)      kg cm2.

Ans: d

5.    Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as
(a)     strain   
(b)     lateral strain
(c)     linear strain   
(d)     linear stress
(e)     unit strain.

Ans: c

6. It equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it, the stress so produced is called
(a)    internal resistance
(b)    tensile stress  
(c)     transverse stress
(d)    compressive stress
(e)    working stress.

Ans: b

7.    The materials having same elastic properties in all directions are called
(a)    ideal materials
(b)    uniform materials
(c)    isotropic materials
(d)    practical materials
(e)    elastic materials.
Ans: c

8.    A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal increments till it breaks. The extensions noted with increasing loads will behave as under
(a)    uniform throughout
(b)    increase uniformly
(c)    first increase and then decrease
(d)    increase uniformly first and then in-crease rapidly
(e)    increase rapidly first and then uniformly.
Ans: d

9.    Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of
(a)    longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(b)    volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(c)    lateral stress and lateral strain
(d)    shear stress and shear strain
(e)    linear stress and lateral strain.
Ans: d

10.    If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its Young's modulus will be
(a)     doubled   
(b)     halved
(c)    become four times
(d)    become one-fourth
(e)    remain unaffected.
Ans: e

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Refrigeration and Air Conditioning - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1.    Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have
(a)     Tow specific heat of liquid
(b)    high boiling point
(c)    high latent heat of vaporization
(d)    higher critical temperature
(e)    low specific volume of vapour.

Ans: b

2.    A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of
(a)     water at 0°C    
(b)     ice at - 4°C
(c)    solid and dry ice
(d)    mixture of ice, water and vapour under equilibrium conditions under NTP conditions
(e)     mixture of ice and water Under equilibrium conditions.

Ans: e

3.    Vapour compression refrigeration is some what like
(a)     Carnot cycle   
(b)     Rankine cycle
(c)    reversed Camot cycle
(d)    reversed Rankine cycle
(e)    none of the above.

Ans: e

4.    Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant
(a)     Ericsson   
(b)     Stirling
(c)     Carnot   
(d)     Bell coleman
(e)     none of the above.

Ans: d

5.    Ammonia-absorption refrigeration cycle requires
(a)    very little work input
(b)    maximum work input
(c)    nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(d)    zero work input
(e)    none of the above.

Ans: a

 6.    An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration is
(a)    noisy operation
(b)    quiet operation
(c)    cooling below 0°C
(d)    very little power consumption
(e)    its input only in the form of heating.

Ans: b

7.    The relative coefficient of performance is
(a)     actual COP/theoretical COP
(b)    theoretical COP/actual COP
(c)    actual COP x theoretical COP
(d)    1-actual COP x theoretical COP
(e)    1-actual COP/theoretical COP.
Ans: a

8.    Clapeyron equation is a relation between
(a)    temperature, pressure and enthalpy
(b)    specific volume and enthalpy
(c)    temperature and enthalpy
(d)    temperature, pressure, and specific volume
(e)    temperature, pressure, specific value and enthalpy.
Ans: e

9.    Clapeyron equation is applicable for registration at
(a)    saturation point of vapour
(b)    saturation point of liquid
(c)    sublimation temperature
(d)    triple point      
(e)     critical point.
Ans: a

10.  In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid
(a)    after passing through the condenser
(b)    before passing through the condenser

(c)    after passing through the expansion throttle valve
(d)    before entering the expansion valve
(e)    before entering the compressor.
Ans: a

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Heat Transfer - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is
(a) kcal/kg m2 °C
(b) kcal-m/hr m2 °C
(c) kcal/hr m2 °C  
(d) kcal-m/hr °C
(e) kcal-m/m2 °C.

Ans: b

2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
(a) J/m2 sec   
(b) J/m °K sec
(c) W/m °K   
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) (b) and (c) above.

Ans: e

3.     Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally
(a)     increases   
(b)     decreases
(c)    remains constant
(d)    may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e)    unpredictable.

Ans: b

4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in temperature
(a)     increases   
(b)     decreases
(c)     remains constant
(d)    may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e)    unpredictable.

Ans: b

5.     Heat transfer takes place as per -
(a)     zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b)    first law of thermodynamic
(c)    second law of the thermodynamics
(d)    Kirchhoff law (e) Stefan's law.

Ans: c

6.  When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual motion of the heated particles, it is referred to as heat transfer by
(a)     conduction      
(b)     convection
(c)     radiation
(d)    conduction and convection
(e)    convection and radiation.

Ans: a

7.    When heat is transferred form hot body to cold body, in a straight line, without affecting the intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by
(a)     conduction      
(b)     convection
(c)     radiation
(d)    conduction and convection
(e)    convection and radiation.
Ans: c

8.    Sensible heat is the heat required to
(a)    change vapour into liquid
(b)    change liquid into vapour
(c)    increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
(d)    convert water into steam and superheat it
(e)    convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: c

9.    The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would
(a) increase   
(b) decrease
(c)    remain unaffected
(d)    may increase/decrease  depending  on temperature and thickness of insulation
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

10.    When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat transfer by
(a) conduction      
(b) convection
(c) radiation   
(d) scattering
(e) convection and radiation.   
Ans: b

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Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1. Free air is the air at
(a)    atmospheric conditions at any specific location
(b)    20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity of 36%
(c)    0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
(d)    15°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e)     25°C, 1 kg/cm2'and relative humidity of 50%.

Ans: a

2. Standard air is the air at
(a)    atmospheric conditions at any specific location
(b)    20°C and 1 kg/cm2 and relative humidity 36%
(c)    0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
(d)    15°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e)    25°C, 1 kg/cm2 and RH of 60%.

Ans: b

3.    1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately
(a) 0.5 kg   
(b) 1.0 kg
(c) 1.3 kg   
(d) 2.2 kg
(e) 3.2 kg.

Ans: c

4.    Adiabatic compression is one in which
(a)    temperature during compression remains constant
(b)    no heat leaves or enters the compressor cylinder during compression
(c)    temperature rise follows a linear relationship
(d)    work done is maximum
(e)    entropy decreases.

Ans: b

5.    The capacity of a compressor is 5 m /mih. 5 m /min refers to
(a)    standard air     
(b)     free air
(c)    compressed air
(d)    compressed air at delivery pressure
(e)    air sucked.

Ans: b

6.    The overall isothermal eiffciency of compressor is defined as the ratio of
(a)    isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
(b)    isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
(c)    power to drive compressor to isothermal h.p.
(d)    work to compress air isothermally to work for actual compression
(e)    isothermal work to ideal work.
Ans: a

7.    The- most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it
(a) isothermally    
(b) adiabatically
(c) isentropically  
(d) isochronically
(e) as per law pV
Ans: a

8.    Maximum work is done in compressing air when the compression is
(a) isothermal   
(b) adiabatic
(c)    polytropic
(d)    any one of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

9.    The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of compressor are
(a)    atmospheric
(b)    slightly more than atmospheric
(c)    slightly less than atmospheric
(d) pressure slightly more than atmospheric and temperature slightly less than atmospheric
(e) pressure sightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly more than atmospheric.
Ans: e

10.    Isothermal compression efficiency can be attained by running the compressor
(a)    at very high speed
(b)    at very slow speed
(c)    at average speed
(d)    at zero speed   
(e) isothermally.
Ans: b

11.    The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature
(a) increases   
(b) decreases
(c)    remains unaffected
(d)    may increase or decrease depending on compressor capacity
(e)    increases upto certain limit and then decreases.
Ans: a

12.    Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high speed, can be approached by using
(a)    multi-stage compression
(b)    cold water spray
(c)    both (a) and (b) above
(d)    fully insulating the cylinder
(e)    high stroke.
Ans: c

13.    Compression efficiency is compared against
(a)    ideal compression
(b)    adiabatic compression
(c)    botii isothermal and adiabatic compression
(d)    isentropic compression
(e)    isothermal compression.
Ans: e

14.    Aeroplanes employ following type of compressor
(a) radial flow       
(b) axial flow
(c) centrifugal
(d) combination of above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

15.    Inter cooling in compressors
(a) cools the delivered air
(b) results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given pressure
(c)    is the standard practice for big compressors
(d)    enables compression in two stages
(e)    prevents   compressor  jacket   running very hot.
Ans: b

16.    An ideal air compressor cycle without clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following processes
(a) one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
(b)    two adiabatic and two isobaric
(c)    two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume
(d)    one adiabatic,  one  isobaric  and two constant volume
(e)    two isobaric,  two adiabatic and one constant volume.
Ans: a

17.    An ideal air compressor cycle with clearance on p-v diagram can be represented by following processes
(a)    one adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
(b)    two adiabatic and two isobaric
(c)    two adiabatic,  one  isobaric  and  one constant volume,
(d)    one adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volume
(e)    two  isobaric,  two adiabatic and one constant volume.
Ans: b

18.    What will be the volume of air at 327°C if its volume at 27°C is 1.5 m3/mt
(a)  3 m3/mt .  
(b)  1.5 m3/mt
(c) 18 m3/mt'  
(d)  6 m3/mt
(e)  0.75 m3/mt.
Ans: a

19.    The work done per unit mass of air in compression will'be least when n is equal to
(a) 1   
(b) 1.2     ,
(c) 1.3   
(d) 1.4
(e) 1.5
Ans: a

20.    Isothermal compression though most efficient, but is not -practicable because
(a)    it requires very big cylinder
(b)    it does not increase pressure much
(c)    it is impossible in practice
(d)    compressor has to  run  at  very  slow speed to achieve it
(e)    it requires cylinder to be placed in water.
Ans: d

21.    Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known as
(a)    mechanical efficiency
(b)    volumetric efficiency
(c)    isothermal efficiency
(d)    adiabatic efficiency
(e)    relative efficiency.
Ans: a

22.    The ratio of work done per cycle to the swept volume in case of compressor is called
(a) compression index
(b)    compression ratio
(c)    compressor efficiency
(d)    mean effective pressure
(e)    compressor effectiveness.
Ans: d

23.    Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
(a)    as large as possible
(b)    as small as possible
(c)    about 50% of swept volume
(d)    about 100% of swept volume
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

24.    Ratio of compression is the ratio of
(a)    gauge discharge pressure to the gauge intake pressure
(b)    absolute discharge pressure to the ab-solute intake pressure
(c)    pressures at discharge and suction cor-responding to same temperature
(d)    stroke volume and clearance volume
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

25.    Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential
(a)    to accommodate Valves in the cylinder head
(b)    to provide cushioning effect
(c)    to attain high volumetric efficiency
(d)    to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head
(e)    to provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang of piston with cylinder head.
Ans: e

26.    The net work input required for compressor with increase in clearance volume
(a) increases   
(b) decreases
(c)    remains same
(d)    increases/decreases depending on com-presser capacity
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: c

27.    Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in known as
(a)    compressor efficiency
(b)    isothermal efficiency
(c)    volumetric efficiency
(d)    mechanical efficiency
(e)    adiabatic efficiency.
Ans: d

28.    Volumetric efficiency is
(a)    the ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
(b)    the ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston displacement
(c)    reciprocal of compression ratio
(d)    index of compressor performance
(e)    proportional to compression ratio.
Ans: b

29.    Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is of the order of
(a) 20-30%   
(b) 40-50%
(c) 60-70%   
(d) 70-90%
(e) 90-100%.
Ans: d

30.    Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with clearance volume
(a)    increases with increase in compression ratio
(b)    decreases with increase in compression ratio
(c)    in  not  dependent  upon  compression ratio
(d)    may  increase/decrease depending  on compressor capacity
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: b

31.    Volumetric efficiency of a compressor without clearance volume
(a)    increases with increase in compression ratio
(b)    decreases with increase in compression ratio
(c)    is not dependent upon compressin ratio
(d)    may  increase/decrease  depending  on compressor capacity
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: c

32.    The clearance volume of the air compressor is kept minimum because
(a)    it allows maximum compression to be achieved
(b)    it greatly affects volumetric efficiency
(c)    it results in minimum work
(d)    it permits isothermal compression
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

33.    Euler's equation is applicable for
(a)    centrifugal compressor
(b)    axial compressor
(c)    pumps
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

40.    Out of the following, from where you will prefer to take intake for air compressor
(a)    from an air conditioned room maintained at 20°C
(b)    from outside atmosphere at 1°C
(c)    from coal yard side
(d)    from a side where cooling tower is located nearby
(e)    from any one of the above locations.
Ans: d

41.    Mining industry usually employs following motive power
(a)    A.C. electric motor
(b)    compressed air
(c)    petrol engine
(d)    diesel engine
(e)    D.C. electric motor.
Ans: b

42.    Which is false statement about air receivers
(a)    These are used to dampen pulsations ,
(b)    These act as reservoir to- take care of sudden demands
(c)    These increase compressor efficiency
(d)    These knock out some oil and moisture
(e)    These reduce frequent on/off operation of compressors.
Ans: c

44.    An air receiver is to be placed outside. Should it be placed in
(a) sun   
(b) shade
(c) rain   
(d) enclosed room
(e) anywhere.
Ans:

45.    Which is false statement about multistage compression    .
(a)    Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low
(b)    Volumetric efficiency is high
(c)    It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1
(d)    The moisture in air is condensed in the intercooler
(e)    Outlet temperature is reduced.
Ans: b

46.    In multistage compressor, the isothermal compression is achieved by
(a)    employing intercooler
(b)    by constantly cooling the cylinder
(c)    by running compressor at very slow speed
(d)    by insulating the cylinder
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

47.    Reciprocating air compressor is best suited for
(a)    large quantity of air at high pressure
(b)    small quantity of air at high pressure
(c)    small quantity of air at low pressure
(d)    large quantity of air at low pressure
(e)    any one of the above.
Ans: a

48.    Rotary compressor is best suited for
(a)    large quantity of air at high pressure
(b)    small quantity of air at high pressure
(c)    small quantity of air at low pressure
(d)    large quantity of air at low pressure
(e)    any one of the above.
Ans: b

49.    The capacity of compressor will be highest when its intake temperature is
(a) lowest   
(b) highest
(c) anything.   
(d) atmospheric
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

50.    After-cooler is used to
(a)    cool the air
(b)    decrease the delivery temperature for ease in handling
(c)    cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
(d)    reduce volume
(e)    increase pressure.
Ans: c

51.    To aviod moisture troubles, the compressed air main line should
(a)    rise gradually towards the point of use
(b)    drop gradually towards the point of use
(c)    be laid vertically
(d)    be laid exactly horizontally
(e)    none of the above
Ans: b

52.    Separators in compressor installations are located
(a)    before intercooler
(b)    after intercooler
(c)    after receiver
(d)    between after-cooler and air receiver
(e)    before suction.
Ans: d

53.    The area of actual indicator diagram on an air compressor as compared to area of ideal indicator diagram is
(a) less   
(b) more
(c)    same
(d)    more/less depending on compressor capacity
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: b

54.    An air compressor may be controlled by
(a) throttle control (b) clearance control
(c)    blow-off control
(d)    any one of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

55.    The compressor efficiency is the
(a)    isothermal H.P/indicated H.R
(b)    isothermal H.P./shaft H.R
(c)    total output/air input
(d)    compression work/motor input
(e)    none Of the above.
Ans: a

56.    To avoid moisture troubles, the branch connections from compressed air lines should be taken from
(a)    top side of main
(b)    bottom side of main
(c)    left side of main
(d)    right side of main
(e)    any location.
Ans: a

57.    The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal compressor is produced by
(a)    radial component
(b)    axial component
(c)    tangential component
(d)    resultant component
 Ans: b

58.    The compressor performance at higher altitude compared to sea level will be
(a) same   
(b) higher
(c)    lower
(d)    dependent on other factors
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

59.    A compressor at high altitude will draw
(a) more power     
(b) less power
(c)    same power
(d)    more/less power depending on other factors
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

60.    During peak load periods, the best method of controlling compressors is
(a)    start-stop motor
(b)    constant speed unloader
(c)    relief valve      
(d) variable speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

61.    A centrifugal compressor works on the principle of
(a)    conversion   of  pressure   energy   into kinetic energy
(b)    conversion of kinetic energy into pres¬sure energy
(c)    centripetal action
(d)    generating pressure directly
(e)    combination of (a) and (d).
Ans: b

62.    For a compressor, least work will be done if the compression is
(a)    is entropic
(b)    isothermal   
(c)    poly tropic
(d)    somewhere in between is entropic and isothermal
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

67.    In a compressor, free air delivered is the actual volume delivered at the stated pressure reduced to
(d)    N.T.P. conditions
(b)    intake temperature and pressure conditions
(c)    0°C and 1 kg/cm2
(d)    20°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

68.    The volumetric efficiency of a compressor is calculated on the basis of
(a)    volume of air inhaled at working conditions
(b)    volume of air inhaled at N.T.P. conditions
(c)    volume at 0°C and 1 kg/cm2
(d)    volume at 20°C and 1 kg/cm2
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

69.    The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 100 m increase in elevation
(a) 0.1%   
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1.0%   
(d) 5%
(e) 10%.
Ans: c

70.    For slow-speed large capacity compressor, following type of valve will be best suited
(a)    poppet valve
(b)    mechanical valve of the corliss, sleeve, rotary or semirotary type
(c)    disc or feather type
(d) any of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

71.    During base load operation, the best method of controlling compressor is
(a)    start-stop motor
(b)    constant speed unloaded
(c)    relief valve      
(d) variable speed
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

72.    More than one stage will be preferred for reciprocating compressor if the delivery pressure is more than
(a) 2 kg/cm2   
(b) 6 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2       
(d) 14.7 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

73.    The advantage of multistage compression over single stage compression is
(a)    lower power consumption per unit of air delivered
(b)    higher volumetric efficiency
(c)    decreased discharge temperature
(d)    moisture free air
(e)     all of the above.
Ans: e

74.    Pick up the wrong statement about advantages of multistage compression
(a)    better lubrication is possible advantages of multistage
(b)    more loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
(c)    mechanical balance is better
(d)    air can be cooled perfectly in between
(e)    more uniform torque, light cylinder and saving in work.
Ans: b

75.    As the value of index '«' is decreased, the volumetric efficiency will
(a)    increase   
(b)   decrease
(c)    remain unaffected
(d)    may  increase/decrease  depending  on compressor clearance
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

76.    The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of centrifugal compressor is called
(a)    slip factor   
(b)    velocity factor
(c)    velocity coefficient
(d)    blade effectiveness
Ans: a

79.    Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due to
(a)    inlet losses
(b)    impeller channel losses
(c)    diffuser losses
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above
Ans: d

80.    The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows for every 5°C increase in atmospheric temperature
(a) 0.1%   
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1%   
(d) 5%
(e ) 10%.
Ans: c

81.    The indicated work per unit mass of air delivered is
(a)    directly proportional to clearance volume
(b)    greatly affected by clearance volume
(c)    not affected by clearance volume
(d)    inversely proportional to clearance volume
Ans: c

89.    For actual single stage centrifugal compressor, the maximum pressure ratio is of the order of
(a) 1 : 1.2   
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4   
(d) 1 : 10
(e) 1 : 1
Ans:

90.    Which is false statement about advantages of multistage compressor in comparison to single stage compressor
(a)    less power requirement
(b)    better mechanical balance
(c)    less loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
(d)    more effective lubrication
(e)    lower volumetric efficiency.
Ans: e

91.    The ratio of isentropic work to Euler work is known as
(a)    pressure coefficient
(b)    work coefficient
(c)    polytropic reaction
(d)    slip factor
(e)    compressor efficiency.
Ans: a

92.    The criterion of the thermodynamic efficiency for rotary compressor is
(a)    isentropic compression
(b)    isothermal compression
(c)    polytropic compression
(d)    any one of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

93.    For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure, following compressor is best suited
(a) centrifugal       
(b) reciprocating
(c) axial   
(d) screw
(e) turbo jet.
Ans: b

94.    For minimum work in multistage compression, assuming same index of compression in all stages
(a)    work done in first stage should be more
(b)    work done in subsequent stages should increase
(c)    work done in subsequent stages should decrease
(d)    work done in all stages should be equal
(e) work done in any stage is no criterion for minimum work but depends on other factors.
Ans: d

95.    For a two stage compressor* if index of compression for higher stage is greater than index of compression for lower stage, then the optimum pressure as compared to ideal case will
(a)    increase   
(b) decrease
(c)    remain unaffected
(d)    other factors control it
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: a

96.    Diffuser in a compressor is used to
(a)    increase velocity
(b)    make the flow stream-line
(c)    convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
(d)    convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
(e)    increase degree of reaction.
Ans: d

98.    The ratio of isentropic work to euler's work is known as
(a)    compressor efficiency
(b)    isentropic efficiency
(c)     Euler's efficiency
(d)    pressure coefficient
(e)    pressure ratio.
Ans: d

99.    The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary compressor is based on
(a)    isothermal compression
(b)    adiabatic compression
(c)    isentropic compression
(d)    polytropic compression
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

100.    Phenomenon of choking in compressor means
(a)     no flow of air
(b)    fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
(c)    reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio
(d)    increased inclination of chord with air steam
(e)    does not occur.
Ans: b

101.    The maximum compression ratio in an actual single stage axial flow compressor is of the order of
(a) 1 : 1.2   
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 5   
(d) 1 : 10
(e) 1 : 1
Ans: a

102.    Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary air compressor is of the order of
(a) 6 kg/cm2   
(b) 10 kg/cm2
(c) 16 kg/cm2       
(d) 25 kg/cm2
(e) 40 kg/cm2.
Ans: b

103.    Surging is the phenomenon of
(a)    air stream blocking the passage
(b)    motion of air at sonic velocity
(c)    unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
(d)    air stream not able to follow the blade contour
(e)    production of no air pressure.
Ans: c

104.    Pick up wrong statement.
Surging phenomenon in centrifugal compressor depends on
(a)     mass flow rate
(b)     pressure ratio
(c)    change in load
(d)    stagnation pressure at the outlet
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: d

105.    The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor blades to total increase in pressure in the stage is called
(a)    pressure ratio
(b)    pressure coefficient
(c)    degree of reaction
(d)    slip factor   
(e)     stage factor.
Ans: c

106.    Axial flow compressor resembles
(a)    centrifugal pump
(b)    reciprocating pump
(c)    turbine
(d)    sliding vane compressor
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

107.    Axial flow compressor has the following advantage over centrifugal compressor
(a)     larger air handling  ability  per  unit frontal area
(b)     higher pressure ratio per stage
(c)    aerofoil blades are used
(d)    higher average velocities
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

108.    Actual compression curve is
(a)    same as isothermal
(b)    same as adiabatic
(c)    better than isothermal and adiabatic
(d)    in between isothermal and adiabatic
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

109.    Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and vapor pressure is 0.03 kg/cm . The air pressure will be
(a) 1.03 kg/cm2
(b) 1.06 kg/cm2
(c) 1.00 kg/cm2
(d) 0.53 kg/cm2
(e) 0.5 kg/cm2.
Ans: c

110.    The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned compressor with increase in mass flow rate
(a)     increases   
(b)     decreases
(c)    remains constant
(d)    first decreases and then increases
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: c

111.    Rotary compressors are suitable for
(a)    large discharge at high pressure
(b)    low discharge at high pressure
(c)    large discharge at low pressure
(d)    low discharge at low pressure
(e)    there is no such limitation.
Ans: c

112.    The volumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in compression ratio will
(a)     increase   
(b)     decrease
(c)    remain same
(d)    may increase/decrease depending on clearance volume
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

113.    Stalling of blades in axial flow compressor is the phenomenon of
(a)    air stream blocking the passage
(b)    motion of air at sonic velocity
(c)    unsteady periodic and reversed flow
(d)    air stream not able to follow the blade contour
(e)    production of no air pressure.
Ans: d

114.    Pick up the wrong statement
(a)     centrifugal compressors deliver prac-tically constant pressure over a con->     siderable range of capacities
(b)     Axial flow compressors have a sub-stantially constant delivery at variable pressures
(c)    centrifugal compressors have a wider stable operating range than axial flow compressors
(d)    axial flow compressors are bigger in diameter compared to centrifugal type
(e)    axial flow compressors apt to be longer as compared to centrifugal type.
Ans: d

115.    The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is defined as the ratio of
(a) net work output and heat supplied (6) net work output and work done by tur¬bine
(c)    actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
(d)    net work output and isentropic heat drop
(e)    isentropic increase/drop in tempera¬ture and actual increase/ drop in temperature.
Ans: b

116.    Gas turbine works on
(a)    Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(b)    Carnot cycle   
(c)     Rankine cycle
(d)    Erricsson cycle
(e)    Joule cycle.
 Ans: a

117.    The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
(a)    pressure ratio
(b)    maximum cycle temperature
(c)    minimum cycle temperature
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of die above.
Ans: d

118.    The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas turbine compared to closed cycle gas turbine of same h.p. is
(a) low   
(b) high
(c)    same
(d)    low/high depending on make and type
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: a

119.    Open cycle gas turbine works on
(a) Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(6) Rankine cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d)    Erricsson cycle
(e)    Joule cycle.
Ans: a

120.  The fuel consumption in gas turbines is accounted for by
(a)    low.er heating value
(b)    higher heating value
(c)    heating value
(d)    higher calorific value
(e)    highest calorific value.
Ans: a

121.    Gas turbines for power generation are normally used
(a) to supply base load requirements
(b) to supply peak load requirements
(c)    to enable start thermal power plant
(d)    in emergency
(e)    when other sources of power fail.
Ans: b

122.    Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as compared to I.C engines is
(a) higher   
(b) lower
(c)    same
(d)    depends on osier considerations
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: a

123.    The ratio of specific weigh/h.p. of gas turbine and I.C engines may be typically of the order of
(a) 1 : 1   
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1   
(d) 1:2
(e) 1 : 6.
Ans: e

124.    The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to a diesel plant is
(a) same   
(b) more
(c) less
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictably.
Ans: c

125.    The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
(a) 7 : 1   
(b) 15 : 1
(c) 30 : 1   
(d) 40 : 1
(e) 50: 1.
Ans: e

126.    The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
(a),2:l   
(b)4:1
(c) 61: 1   
(d) 9 : 1
(e) 12:1.
Ans: c

128.    The hottest point in a gas turbine is
(a) at the base      
(b) at the tip
(c)    in the center
(d)    between ~ to i of the blade height
(e) uniformly heated.
Ans: d

129.    The following is true for an open cycle gas turbine having exhaust heat exchanger. Atmospheric air before entering the compressor is
(a)    heated
(b)    compressed air before entering the combustion chamber is heated
(c)    bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted for complete expansion
(d)    exhaust gases drive the compressor
(e)    part of exhaust gases are heated and mixed up with atmospheric air to utilize exhaust heat.
Ans: b

130.    Gas turbine blades are given a rake
(a)    equal to zero
(b)    in the direction of motion of blades
(c)    opposite to the direction of motion of blades
(d)    depending on the velocity
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b

131.    Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
(a) reheating   
(b) inter cooling
(c)    adding a re generator
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

132.    Temperature of gases at end of compression as compared to exhaust gases in a gas turbine is
(a) higher   
(b) lower
(c) equal   
(d) can't be compared
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

133.    The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
(a)    pressure ratio
(b)    maximum cycle temperature
(c)    minimum cycle temperature
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

134.    The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a given turbine inlet temperature with increase in pressure ratio
(a) increases   
(b) decreases
(c)    first increases and then decreases
(d)    first decreases and then increases
(e)    remains same.
Ans: a

135.    Gas turbines use following type of air compressor
(a)    centrifugal type
(b)    reciprocating type
(c)    lobe type   
(d)   axial flow type
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

136.    As the turbine inlet temperature increases, the thermal efficiency of gas turbine for the optimum pressure ratio
(a)    increases   
(b)    decreases
(c)    remains same
(d)    first increases and then decreases
(e)    first decreases and then increases.
Ans: a

137.    There is a certain pressure ratio (optimum) for a gas turbine at which its thermal efficiency is maximum. With increase in turbine temperature, the value of pressure ratio for the peak efficiency would
(a) remain same   
(b) decrease
(c) increase   
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

138.    The material commonly used for air craft gas turbine is
(a)    stainless steel  
(b)   high alloy' steel
(c)    duralumin
(d)    Timken, Haste and Colonel alloys
(e)    titanium.
Ans: d

139.    It is not possible to use closed gas turbine cycle in aeronautical engines because
(a) it is inefficient
(b) it is bulky
(c) it requires cooling water for its operation
 Ans: c

140.    The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine using perfect combustion chamber is of the order of
(a) 50%   
(b) 75%
(c) 85%   
(d) 90%
(e ) 99%.
Ans: e

141.    The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to I.C. engine is
(a) more   
(b) less
(c)    same
(d)    depends on other factors
(e)    unpredictable.
Ans: b

142.    For an irreversible gas turbine cycle, the efficiency and work ratio both depend on
(a)    pressure ratio alone
(b)    maximum cycle temperature alone
(c)    minimum cycle temperature alone
(d)    both pressure ratio and maximum cycle temperature
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: d

143.    Producer gas is produced by
(a)    carbonation of coal
(b)    passing steam over incandescent coke
(c)    passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
(d)    partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
(e)    same way as the natural gas.
Ans: d

144.    Water gas is produced by
(a)    carbonation of coal
(b)    passing steam over incandescent coke
(c)    passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 65°C
(d)    partial combustion of coal, eke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a mixed air steam blast
(e)    same way as the natural gas.
Ans: b

14    Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to
(a)    control temperature
(b)    control output of turbine
(c)    control fire hazards
(d)    increase efficiency
(e)    it is never done.
Ans: b

146.    A gas turbine used in air craft should have
(a)    high h.p. and low weight
(b)    low weight and small frontal area
(c)    small frontal area and high h.p.
(d)    high speed and high h.p.
(e)    all of the above.
Ans: b

148.    The closed cycle in gas turbines
(a)    provides greater flexibility
(b)    provides lesser flexibility
(c)    in never used
(d)    is used when gas is to be burnt
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: a

149.    In the axial flow gas turbine, the work ratio is the ratio of
(a)    compressor work and turbine work
(b)    output and input
(c)    actual total head temperature drop to the entropic total head drop from total head inlet to static head outlet
(d)    actual compressor work and theoretical compressor work
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: c

150.    The degree of reaction of an axial flow turbine is the ratio of is entropic temperature drop in a blade row to the
(a)    adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
(b)    total temperature drop
(c)    total temperature drop in the stage
(d)    total adiabatic temperature drop
(e)    difference of maximum and minimum temperature in the cycle.
Ans: c

153.    If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then expansion process in turbine approaches
(a) isothermal       
(b) isentropic
(c) adiabatic   
(d) isochoric
(e) isobaric.
Ans: a

154.    Pick up the correct statement
(a)    gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to economies on fuel
(b)    gas turbine uses high air-fuel ratio to reduce outgoing temperature
(c)    gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to develop the high thrust required
(d)    all of the above
(e)    none of the above.
Ans: b